Basic Human Neuroanatomy
A Clinically Oriented Atlas 

Posttest 3a
Pretest #3b

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    1. A left posterior cerebral artery occlusion:
      a. may cause an infarct of the inferior temporal lobe, occipital lobe, and splenium of the corpus callosum
      b.  often causes a right homonymous hemianopsia
      c.  may also lead to alexia without agraphia (ie, the ability to write spontaneously, but inability to read words), due to a disconnection between the right and left calcarine cortex and the left angular gyrus
      d. all of the above are correct
      e. only a and b are correct

    2. A patient sustains an acute complete transection of the left optic nerve without any other damage.  What findings are present when you examine the patient’s pupils in dim light?
      a. The left pupil constricts when a bright light is shined into the right eye.
      b. The right pupil constricts when a bright light is shined into the left eye.
      c.  The pupils are equal in size at rest.
      d. all of the above are correct
      e. only a and c are correct

    3. Which of the following is (are) a possible cause(s) of “light-near dissociation” of the pupillary refexes (ie, impaired pupillary light reflexes with relatively intact accommodation)?
      a.  tertiary syphilis
      b.  pineal tumor
      c.  viral infection of the ciliary ganglia
      d. all of the above are correct
      e. only a and c are correct

    4. A Wernicke's (fluent, receptive) aphasia is characterized by:
      a. intact comprehension of speech
      b. intact (although nonsensical) verbal output of speech
      c.  a lesion in the posterior part of the (usually) left inferior frontal gyrus (areas 44, 45)
      d.  damage to the (usually) left posterior superior temporal gyrus and planum temporale (area 22)
      e.  the patient being intensely frustrated
      f.  all of the above are correct
      g. only a, c, and e are correct
      h. only b and d are correct

    5. Which of the following represents a unimodal sensory association cortex?
      a. inferior parietal lobule (areas 39, 40)
      b. lateral occipital cortex (areas 18 and 19)
      c.  prefrontal cortex (areas 9, 10, 11)
      d. superior temporal gyrus (area 22)
      e. postcentral gyrus (areas 3, 1, 2)
      f.  all of the above are correct
      g. only a and c are correct
      h. only b and d are correct
      i.  only a, c, and e are correct

    6. Damage to the right frontal eye field (areas 8, 6) results in which of the following?
      a. both eyes are deviated horizontally to the left at rest
      b. both eyes are deviated to the right at rest
      c.  the patient cannot voluntarily look to the right
      d. the patient cannot voluntarily look to the left
      e. only b and d are correct

    7. Which of the following fiber bundles (tracts, pathways, etc.) is (are) an example of
      association fibers?
      a. corticopontine fibers
      b. uncinate fasciculus
      c.  corpus callosum
      d. arcuate fasciculus
      e. only b and d are correct

    8. Which of the following statements concerning commissural fibers is (are) true?
      a. They are bundles of fibers interconnecting areas of cortex to homologous areas of the contralateral side of the brain.
      b. One example is the arcuate fasciculus.
      c.  The neuron cell bodies of origin are small pyramidal cells in layer 5 of the cortex.
      d.  all of the above are correct
      e. only a and b are correct

    9. Which of the following fiber bundles (tracts, pathways, etc.) is (are) an example of
      projection fibers?
      a. corticospinal fibers
      b. uncinate fasciculus
      c.   corpus callosum
      d. arcuate fasciculus
      e. only b and d are correct

    10. Which of the following represents a polymodal (heteromodal) sensory association cortex?
      a.  inferior parietal lobule (areas 39, 40)
      b.   prefrontal cortex (areas 9, 10, and 11)
      c.    postcentral gyrus (areas 3, 1, 2)
      d.  all of the above are correct
      e. only a and b are correct

    11. In the cerebral neocortex:
      a. neurons are arranged in both columns and in layers
      b. the internal granular layer (layer 4) is well developed in sensory areas of the cortex
      c.   the large pyramidal cells in layer 5 of the precentral gyrus contribute to the corticospinal tract
      d.  all of the above are correct
      e. only a and c are correct

    12. Which of the following statements concerning the archicortex is (are) true?
      a. It contains a variable number of layers (3-5).
      b. The hippocampus and dentate gyrus are a part of it.
      c.    The cingulate gyrus is a part of it.
      d. It is the most primitive area of the cerebral cortex.
      e.  only b and d are correct

    13. Which of the following represents a unimodal sensory association cortex?
      a. the parts of the cuneus and lingual gyrus on the banks of the calcarine sulcus (area 17)
      b. superior parietal lobule (areas 5 and 7)
      c.  transverse temporal gyri (areas 41 and 42)
      d.  postcentral gyrus (areas 3, 1, 2)
      e. inferior parietal lobule (areas 39, 40)

    14. The nucleus accumbens is most strongly implicated in which of the conditions listed below?
    15. a.  Alzheimer disease
      b.  substance abuse and addiction
      c.   Creutzfeld-Jakob disease (CJD)
      d.   Huntington disease
      e.    temporal lobe epilepsy
      f.   only a and c are correct
      g.  only b and d are correct

    16. Which adult structures are derived from the embryonic metencephalon?
      a. cerebellum
      b. medulla oblongata
      c.  pons
      d. all of the above are correct
      e. only a and c are correct

    17. The arcuate fasciculus:
      a.  is an example of an association bundle
      b. is the structure damaged in the dominant hemisphere in a patient with a conduction aphasia
      c.    connects the left motor speech center (Broca’s area, areas 44, 45) with the left superior temporal gyrus (Wernicke’s area, area 22)
      d.  connects the inferior frontal lobe to the anterior temporal lobe
      e.  all of the above are correct
      f.   only a and c are correct
      g.  only a, b, and c are correct

    18. Which adult structures are derived from the embryonic prosencephalon?
      a. thalamus
      b. medulla oblongata
      c.  cerebral hemispheres
      d. pons
      e. only a and c are correct

    19. Extended Matching Set - For each of the 7 questions below, indicate the letter of the most closely related item from the list. Each option may be correct for more than one question.

    20. Receives input from the optic tract and projects to the banks of the calcarine sulcus (area 17).
      a. Centromedian nucleus
      b. Ventral anterior and ventral lateral nuclei
      c.  Pulvinar
      d. Medial geniculate body
      e. Anterior nucleus of the thalamus
      f.  Ventral posteromedial (VPM) nucleus
      g. Medial dorsal (dorsomedial, mediodorsal) nucleus
      h. Lateral geniculate body
      i.  Ventral posterolateral (VPL) nucleus
      j.  Reticular nucleus of the thalamus
      k.  Lesion of the optic chiasma
      l.   Left homonymous superior quadrantanopsia
      m. Right homonymous hemianopsia
      n.  Left homonymous inferior quadrantanopsia
      o.  Left homonymous hemianopsia
      p.  Left monocular blindness

    21. Involved in integrating information from the basal nuclei and neocerebellum and activating the primary motor, supplementary motor, premotor, and prefrontal cortices.
      a. Centromedian nucleus
      b. Ventral anterior and ventral lateral nuclei
      c.  Pulvinar
      d. Medial geniculate body
      e. Anterior nucleus of the thalamus
      f.  Ventral posteromedial (VPM) nucleus
      g. Medial dorsal (dorsomedial, mediodorsal) nucleus
      h. Lateral geniculate body
      i.  Ventral posterolateral (VPL) nucleus
      j.  Reticular nucleus of the thalamus
      k.  Lesion of the optic chiasma
      l.   Left homonymous superior quadrantanopsia
      m. Right homonymous hemianopsia
      n.  Left homonymous inferior quadrantanopsia
      o.  Left homonymous hemianopsia
      p.  Left monocular blindness

    22. Receives input from the limbic and olfactory systems and projects to anterior (or prefrontal) regions of the cortex (areas 9, 10, 11).
      a. Centromedian nucleus
      b. Ventral anterior and ventral lateral nuclei
      c.  Pulvinar
      d. Medial geniculate body
      e. Anterior nucleus of the thalamus
      f.  Ventral posteromedial (VPM) nucleus
      g. Medial dorsal (dorsomedial, mediodorsal) nucleus
      h. Lateral geniculate body
      i.  Ventral posterolateral (VPL) nucleus
      j.  Reticular nucleus of the thalamus
      k.  Lesion of the optic chiasma
      l.   Left homonymous superior quadrantanopsia
      m. Right homonymous hemianopsia
      n.  Left homonymous inferior quadrantanopsia
      o.  Left homonymous hemianopsia
      p. Left monocular blindness

    23. Receives the spinal and medial lemnisci and projects to the "body area" of the postcentral gyrus (areas 3, 1, 2).
      a. Centromedian nucleus
      b. Ventral anterior and ventral lateral nuclei
      c.  Pulvinar
      d. Medial geniculate body
      e. Anterior nucleus of the thalamus
      f.  Ventral posteromedial (VPM) nucleus
      g. Medial dorsal (dorsomedial, mediodorsal) nucleus
      h. Lateral geniculate body
      i.  Ventral posterolateral (VPL) nucleus
      j.  Reticular nucleus of the thalamus
      k.  Lesion of the optic chiasma
      l.   Left homonymous superior quadrantanopsia
      m. Right homonymous hemianopsia
      n.  Left homonymous inferior quadrantanopsia
      o.  Left homonymous hemianopsia
      p.  Left monocular blindness

    24. Receives input from the superior colliculus and reciprocal projections to and from the posterior parietal and lateral occipital regions of the cortex and is involved in visual processing and subcortical modulation of visual attention.
      a. Centromedian nucleus
      b. Ventral anterior and ventral lateral nuclei
      c.  Pulvinar
      d. Medial geniculate body
      e. Anterior nucleus of the thalamus
      f.  Ventral posteromedial (VPM) nucleus
      g. Medial dorsal (dorsomedial, mediodorsal) nucleus
      h. Lateral geniculate body
      i.  Ventral posterolateral (VPL) nucleus
      j.  Reticular nucleus of the thalamus
      k.  Lesion of the optic chiasma
      l.   Left homonymous superior quadrantanopsia
      m. Right homonymous hemianopsia
      n.  Left homonymous inferior quadrantanopsia
      o.  Left homonymous hemianopsia
      p.  Left monocular blindness

    25. Receives input from layer 6, the multiform layer, of the cortex, and projects to other thalamic nuclei and regulates their activity.
      a. Centromedian nucleus
      b. Ventral anterior and ventral lateral nuclei
      c.  Pulvinar
      d. Medial geniculate body
      e. Anterior nucleus of the thalamus
      f.  Ventral posteromedial (VPM) nucleus
      g. Medial dorsal (dorsomedial, mediodorsal) nucleus
      h. Lateral geniculate body
      i.  Ventral posterolateral (VPL) nucleus
      j.  Reticular nucleus of the thalamus
      k.  Lesion of the optic chiasma
      l.   Left homonymous superior quadrantanopsia
      m. Right homonymous hemianopsia
      n.  Left homonymous inferior quadrantanopsia
      o.  Left homonymous hemianopsia
      p.  Left monocular blindness

    26. Lesion in the right temporal lobe interrupting the visual pathway.
      a. Centromedian nucleus
      b. Ventral anterior and ventral lateral nuclei
      c.  Pulvinar
      d. Medial geniculate body
      e. Anterior nucleus of the thalamus
      f.  Ventral posteromedial (VPM) nucleus
      g. Medial dorsal (dorsomedial, mediodorsal) nucleus
      h. Lateral geniculate body
      i.  Ventral posterolateral (VPL) nucleus
      j.  Reticular nucleus of the thalamus
      k.  Lesion of the optic chiasma
      l.   Left homonymous superior quadrantanopsia
      m. Right homonymous hemianopsia
      n.  Left homonymous inferior quadrantanopsia
      o.  Left homonymous hemianopsia
      p.  Left monocular blindness








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